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AIME 2026 I · 第 7 题

AIME 2026 I — Problem 7

专题
Contest Math
难度
L4
来源
AIME

题目详情

Problem

Find the number of functions π\pi mapping the set A={1,2,3,4,5,6}A=\{1,2,3,4,5,6\} onto AA such that for every aAa\in A,

π(π(π(π(π(π(a))))))=a.\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(a))))))=a.

Proof of the fact that π(1),π(2),π(3),π(4),π(5),π(6)\pi(1), \pi(2), \pi(3), \pi(4), \pi(5), \pi(6) is a permutation of 1,2,3,4,5,6

Assume that there exist a pair of equal numbers among π(1),π(2),π(3),π(4),π(5),π(6)\pi(1), \pi(2), \pi(3), \pi(4), \pi(5), \pi(6).

π(a)=π(b),ab\pi(a)=\pi(b), a\neq b

Since π(a)=π(b)\pi{(a)}=\pi{(b)}, we have π(π(π(π(π(π(a))))))=π(π(π(π(π(π(b))))))\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(a))))))=\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(b)))))).

We have been given that π(π(π(π(π(π(a))))))=a\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(a))))))=a and π(π(π(π(π(π(b))))))=b\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(b))))))=b.

a=ba=b, contradiction.The numbers π(1),π(2),π(3),π(4),π(5),π(6)\pi(1), \pi(2), \pi(3), \pi(4), \pi(5), \pi(6) are therefore all distinct.

After that, we categorize and count the 6!=7206!=720 possibilities as the solutions below.

~G2JFForever

Also, 6 times of π\pi on aa (with aa taking values from 1 to 6) would result in a value of aa itself, which means π\pi function on "5 times of π\pi on aa, which is some value from 1 to 6" would cover all values from 1 to 6.

解析

Solution 1

We note that the function must cycle groups of non-overlapping subsets of A. Since π6(a)=a\pi^6(a)=a, the cycles must be factors of 6, so they can be 1, 2, 3, or 6. We can split the 6 elements of A into: one cycle of 6, two cycles of 3, three cycles of 2, six cycles of 1, one cycle of 3 and three cycles of 1, one cycle of 2 and four cycles of 1, two cycles of 2 and two cycles of 1, and one cycle of 3 and one cycle of 2 and one cycle of 1.

Case 1:

(66)6!6=5!=120\binom{6}{6}*\frac{6!}{6}=5!=120

Case 2:

(63)(33)2!(3!3)2=40\frac{\binom{6}{3}\binom{3}{3}}{2!}*(\frac{3!}{3})^2=40

Case 3:

(62)(42)(22)3!(2!2)3=15\frac{\binom{6}{2}\binom{4}{2}\binom{2}{2}}{3!}*(\frac{2!}{2})^3=15

Case 4:

For six cycles of 1, there is only 11 way.

Case 5:

(63)3!3=40\binom{6}{3}*\frac{3!}{3}=40

Case 6:

(62)2!2=15\binom{6}{2}*\frac{2!}{2}=15

Case 7:

(62)(42)2!(2!2)2=45\frac{\binom{6}{2}\binom{4}{2}}{2!}*(\frac{2!}{2})^2=45

Case 8:

(63)(32)3!32!2=120\binom{6}{3}\binom{3}{2}*\frac{3!}{3}*\frac{2!}{2}=120

Summing up our cases, we get 120+40+15+1+40+15+45+120=396120+40+15+1+40+15+45+120=\boxed{396}

~Reese's Pieces

Solution 2

We have that the cycles of our function must be in lengths which are factors of 6, so that π6(a)=a\pi^6(a) = a We can then case on what cycles there are

Case 1: 1 cycle of Length 6:

We have 5!=1205!=120 ways to do this (Just think circular rotations)

Case 2: 2 cycles of length 3:

We have (63)\binom63 ways to choose what is in the first cycle, then 2!=22! = 2 ways to arrange it. Then 3 choose 3 times 2!. We have to divide by 2! due to symmetry. We get 202!12!2!=40\frac{20 * 2! * 1 * 2!}{2!} = 40

Case 3: One cycle of length 3, one of length 2 and one length 1:

We have (63)\binom63 ways to choose what is in the first cycle, then 2!=22! = 2 ways to arrange it.Then (32)1!\binom32\cdot1! for length 2 cycle and then 1 way for the length 1 cycle. This is 2023=12020 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 = 120.

Case 4: 1 Cycle of Length 3 and 3 of length 1:

We have (63)\binom63 ways to choose what is in the first cycle, then 2!=22! = 2 ways to arrange it. Then only one way for the other 3 cycles because each has to go with itself. This is 202!=4020 \cdot 2! = 40 ways.

Case 5: 3 Cycles of Length 2:

We have (62)\binom62 ways to choose what is in the first cycle, then 1!=11! = 1 ways to arrange it. Then (42)\binom42 for the next cycle and (22)\binom22 for the last. We divide by 3!=63! = 6 due to symmetry. We get 156/6=1515 \cdot 6/6 = 15 ways.

Case 6: 2 cycles of length 2, 2 cycles of length 1:

We have (62)\binom62 ways to choose what is in the first cycle, then 1!=11! = 1 ways to arrange it. Then (42)\binom42 for the next cycle and one way for the last two. We divide by 2!=22! = 2 due to symmetry. We get 156/2=4515 \cdot 6/2 = 45 ways.

Case 7: 1 cycle of length 2, 4 cycles of length 1:

We have (62)=15\binom62=15 ways to choose what is in the first cycle, then 1!=11! = 1 ways to arrange it. There is only one way for the other 4 cycles. So we have 1515 ways.

Case 8: 6 cycles of length 1:

There is just one way.

Adding these up we get 396\boxed{396}

~Aarav22

~Boywithnuke (Extremely minor edit)

Solution 3

Alternatively, we can use complementary counting. Obviously it must be a permutation, giving 6!=7206!=720 total possibilities. However, note that if there is a cycle of length 4 or 5, since they aren't a factor of 6, the problem statement will not be satisfied. This is because if there is a cycle of 4, for the numbers involved in the cycle, π(π(π(π(a))))=a.\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(a))))=a. Similarly for numbers involved in a cycle of 5, π(π(π(π(π(a)))))=a\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(\pi(a)))))=a. We can subtract the possibilities where cycles of {4,1,1},{4,2},{5,1}\{4,1,1\},\{4,2\},\{5,1\} are formed. We get

720(64)3!(64)3!(65)4!=7209090144=396720-\binom64\cdot3!-\binom64\cdot3!-\binom65\cdot4!=720-90-90-144=\boxed{396} Dinga linga doo, edited by mathdivine

Solution 4 (Partitioning and Circular Casework)

The number of cyclic connotations is the number of partitions of 66 using only the numbers 1,2,3,1, 2, 3, or 66. These partitions represent the number of cycles, as partition count is cyclic.

Thus, we have 8 different cycles:

1+1+1+1+1+11+1+1+1+1+1 2+1+1+1+12+1+1+1+1 2+2+1+12+2+1+1 2+2+22+2+2 3+1+1+13+1+1+1 3+2+13+2+1 3+33+3 and 6\text{and}~ 6 Label them top down cases A,B,C,,HA, B, C, \dots, H.

Case A: 1+1+1+1+1+11+1+1+1+1+1

We need all cycles of 11. This implies that f(a)=af(a)=a for all 66 elements. There is 11 mapping.

Case B: 2+1+1+1+12+1+1+1+1

We need a cycle of 22 and 44 cycles of 11. This implies that for 44 values, we have f(a)=af(a)=a, which is done in (64)=15\binom{6}{4} = 15 ways. The remaining two values map on to one another, giving us (21)!(2-1)! cases and the number of ways is 151=1515 \cdot 1 = 15.

Case C: 2+2+1+12+2+1+1

We need 22 cycles of 22 and 22 cycles of 11. This implies that for 22 values, we have f(a)=af(a)=a, which is done in (62)=15\binom{6}{2} = 15 ways. For the remaining two cycles, we distribute upon 44 numbers. Then, say the cycles are in an ordered pair ((a,b),(c,d))((a,b),(c,d)). Then, ((a,b),(c,d))=((c,d),(a,b))((a,b),(c,d)) = ((c,d),(a,b)), thus we choose two elements from the remaining 44, and divide by 22 permutations, giving us a total of 33 different sets, and a total of 153=4515 \cdot 3 = 45 cases.

Case D: 2+2+22+2+2

We have 33 cycles of 22. Imagine the ordered triplet ((a,b),(c,d),(e,f))((a,b),(c,d),(e,f)), in which each is uniquely determined from the set {1,2,3,4,5,6}\{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6\}. We choose 22 from 66 elements, 22 from the remaining 44, and the last two are determined uniquely. Then, we have that all 3!=63! = 6 permutations of this triplet are the same. Thus, we divide by 66 and obtain 906=15\frac{90}{6} = 15 cases.

Case E: 3+1+1+13+1+1+1

We have 33 one cycles and one 33 cycle. For the first, we just determine

(63)=20\binom{6}{3} = 20 cases. For the one cycle, we order the remaining as (a,b,c)(a,b,c). The orientation remains the same except when the two endpoints (aa and cc) are switched. Thus, there are (31)!=2!=2(3-1)! = 2! = 2 cases that work here, for a total

202=4020 \cdot 2 = 40 cases.

Case F: 3+2+13+2+1

We have one 33 cycle, one 22 cycle, and one 11 cycle. There are 66 ways to choose the 11 cycle. From the remaining 55, we choose 22, giving 1010 cases. However, we must be careful to not undercount and naively divide by 22, as when we select only one pair. For the remaining 33, we continue as in previous case to obtain 22 ways (as once again, we have (a,b,c)(a,b,c), and swapping aa and cc given they map to one another is the same). Thus there is 6102=1206 \cdot 10 \cdot 2 = 120 cases.

Case G: 3+33+3

Two cycles of 33. For the first, we have (63)=20\binom{6}{3} = 20 ways. For the second, only 22. Then, we have 4040 cases.

Case H: 66

One cycle of 66. We have (a,b,c,d,e,f)(a,b,c,d,e,f), but swapping the endpoints are the same due to cyclic rotations. For the six elements there are 66 cases for the two that get swapped, and thus we divide the overcount by 66. Then, there are (61)!=5!=120(6-1)! = 5! = 120 possibilities.

Alas, we have to add all 88 partitions, to obtain

1+15+45+15+40+120+40+120=3961 + 15 + 45 + 15 + 40 + 120 + 40 + 120 = 396 The answer is clearly 396\boxed{396}.

~Pinotation

Video Solution (Fast and Easy 🔥🚀)

2026 AIME I #7

By piacademyus.org