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AIME 2024 I · 第 4 题

AIME 2024 I — Problem 4

专题
Contest Math
难度
L4
来源
AIME

题目详情

Problem

Jen enters a lottery by picking 44 distinct numbers from S={1,2,3,,9,10}.S=\{1,2,3,\cdots,9,10\}. 44 numbers are randomly chosen from S.S. She wins a prize if at least two of her numbers were 22 of the randomly chosen numbers, and wins the grand prize if all four of her numbers were the randomly chosen numbers. The probability of her winning the grand prize given that she won a prize is mn\tfrac{m}{n} where mm and nn are relatively prime positive integers. Find m+nm+n.

解析

Solution 1

This is a conditional probability problem. Bayes' Theorem states that

P(AB)=P(BA)P(A)P(B)P(A|B)=\dfrac{P(B|A)\cdot P(A)}{P(B)} in other words, the probability of AA given BB is equal to the probability of BB given AA times the probability of AA divided by the probability of BB. In our case, AA represents the probability of winning the grand prize, and BB represents the probability of winning a prize. Clearly, P(BA)=1P(B|A)=1, since by winning the grand prize you automatically win a prize. Thus, we want to find P(A)P(B)\dfrac{P(A)}{P(B)}.

Let us calculate the probability of winning a prize. We do this through casework: how many of Jen's drawn numbers match the lottery's drawn numbers?

To win a prize, Jen must draw at least 22 numbers identical to the lottery. Thus, our cases are drawing 22, 33, or 44 numbers identical.

Let us first calculate the number of ways to draw exactly 22 identical numbers to the lottery. Let Jen choose the numbers aa, bb, cc, and dd; we have (42)\dbinom42 ways to choose which 22 of these 44 numbers are identical to the lottery. We have now determined 22 of the 44 numbers drawn in the lottery; since the other 22 numbers Jen chose can not be chosen by the lottery, the lottery now has 1022=610-2-2=6 numbers to choose the last 22 numbers from. Thus, this case is (62)\dbinom62, so this case yields (42)(62)=615=90\dbinom42\dbinom62=6\cdot15=90 possibilities.

Next, let us calculate the number of ways to draw exactly 33 identical numbers to the lottery. Again, let Jen choose aa, bb, cc, and dd. This time, we have (43)\dbinom43 ways to choose the identical numbers and again 66 numbers left for the lottery to choose from; however, since 33 of the lottery's numbers have already been determined, the lottery only needs to choose 11 more number, so this is (61)\dbinom61. This case yields (43)(61)=46=24\dbinom43\dbinom61=4\cdot6=24.

Finally, let us calculate the number of ways to all 44 numbers matching. There is actually just one way for this to happen, as (44)=1\dbinom44=1.

In total, we have 90+24+1=11590+24+1=115 ways to win a prize. The lottery has (104)=210\dbinom{10}4=210 possible combinations to draw, so the probability of winning a prize is 115210\dfrac{115}{210}. There is actually no need to simplify it or even evaluate (104)\dbinom{10}4 or actually even know that it has to be (104)\dbinom{10}4; it suffices to call it aa or some other variable, as it will cancel out later. However, let us just go through with this. The probability of winning a prize is 115210\dfrac{115}{210}. Note that the probability of winning a grand prize is just matching all 44 numbers, which we already calculated to have 11 possibility and thus have probability 1210\dfrac1{210}. Thus, our answer is 1210115210=1115\dfrac{\frac1{210}}{\frac{115}{210}}=\dfrac1{115}. Therefore, our answer is 1+115=1161+115=\boxed{116}.

~Technodoggo

Solution 2(quick)

One may also use complimentary counting as a shortcut to calculate the probability of winning a prize, in which the cases are that either one number is shared or no numbers are shared. There are 4(10441)=420=804 \cdot { {10 - 4} \choose {4-1}} = 4 \cdot 20 = 80 ways to choose the former and (1044)=15{{10-4} \choose 4} = 15 ways for the latter. Therefore, there are 9595 ways to NOT choose a prize, so there are 21095=115210-95 = 115 ways to choose a prize, and the answer follows.

- spectraldragon8

Solution 3

For getting all 44 right, there is only 11 way.

For getting 33 right, there is (43)\dbinom43 multiplied by (61)\dbinom61 = 2424 ways.

For getting 22 right, there is (42)\dbinom42 multiplied by (62)\dbinom62 = 9090 ways.

11+24+90\frac{1}{1+24+90} = 1115\frac{1}{115}

Therefore, the answer is 1+115=1161+115 = \boxed{116}

~e___

Video Solution

https://youtu.be/pYU4RHRfe7M

~Steven Chen (Professor Chen Education Palace, www.professorchenedu.com)

Video Solution

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KRvGaHLkVOg

~By Ajeet Dubey (https://www.ioqm.in)