For any positive integer a,σ(a) denotes the sum of the positive integer divisors of a. Let n be the least positive integer such that σ(an)−1 is divisible by 2021 for all positive integers a. Find the sum of the prime factors in the prime factorization of n.
解析
Solution 1
We first claim that n must be divisible by 42. Since σ(an)−1 is divisible by 2021 for all positive integers a, we can first consider the special case where a is prime and a=0,1(mod43). By Dirichlet's Theorem (Refer to the Remark section.), such a always exists.
Then σ(an)−1=∑i=1nai=a(a−1an−1). In order for this expression to be divisible by 2021=43⋅47, a necessary condition is an−1≡0(mod43). By Fermat's Little Theorem, a42≡1(mod43). Moreover, if a is a primitive root modulo 43, then ord43(a)=42, so n must be divisible by 42.
By similar reasoning, n must be divisible by 46, by considering a≡0,1(mod47).
We next claim that n must be divisible by 43. By Dirichlet, let a be a prime that is congruent to 1(mod43). Then σ(an)≡n+1(mod43), so since σ(an)−1 is divisible by 43, n is a multiple of 43.
Alternatively, since (a−1a(an−1n)) must be divisible by 43, by LTE, we have v43(a)+v43(a−1)+v43(n)−v43(a−1)≥1, which simplifies to v43(n)≥1, which implies the desired result.
Similarly, n is a multiple of 47.
Lastly, we claim that if n=lcm(42,46,43,47), then σ(an)−1 is divisible by 2021 for all positive integers a. The claim is trivially true for a=1 so suppose a>1. Let a=p1e1…pkek be the prime factorization of a. Since σ(n) is multiplicative, we have
σ(an)−1=i=1∏kσ(piein)−1.
We can show that σ(piein)≡1(mod2021) for all primes pi and integers ei≥1, so
σ(piein)=1+(pi+pi2+…+pin)+(pin+1+…+pi2n)+…+(pin(ei−1)+1+…+piein),
where each expression in parentheses contains n terms. It is easy to verify that if pi=43 or pi=47 then σ(piein)≡1(mod2021) for this choice of n, so suppose pi≡0(mod43) and pi≡0(mod47). Each expression in parentheses equals pi−1pin−1 multiplied by some power of pi. If pi≡1(mod43), then FLT implies pin−1≡0(mod43), and if pi≡1(mod43), then pi+pi2+…+pin≡1+1+…+1≡0(mod43) (since n is also a multiple of 43, by definition). Similarly, we can show σ(piein)≡1(mod47), and a simple CRT argument shows σ(piein)≡1(mod2021). Then σ(an)≡1k≡1(mod2021).
Then the prime factors of n are 2,3,7,23,43, and 47, and the answer is 2+3+7+23+43+47=125.
~scrabbler94, Revised by wzs26843545602
Solution 2 (Along the Lines of Solution 1)
n only needs to satisfy σ(an)≡1(mod43) and σ(an)≡1(mod47) for all a. Let's work on the first requirement (mod 43) first. All n works for a=1. If a>1, let a's prime factorization be a=p1e1p2e2⋯pkek. The following three statements are the same:
For all a, we have σ(an)=∏i=1k(1+pi+⋯+pinei)≡1(mod43).
For all e>0 and prime p, we have 1+p+⋯+pne≡1(mod43).
For all prime p, we have p+p2+⋯+pn≡0(mod43).
We can show this by casework on p:
For p≡0(mod43), no matter what n is, it is true that
p+p2+⋯+pn≡0(mod43).
3. For all p≡1(mod43), it is true that
p+p2+⋯+pn≡n≡0(mod43).
One can either use brute force or Dirichlet's Theorem to show such p exists. Therefore, 43∣n.
For all p≡0,1(mod43), it is true that
p+p2+⋯+pn≡0(mod43)⇔pn−1≡0(mod43).
According to Fermat's Little Theorem, 42∣n is sufficient. To show it's necessary, we just need to show 43 has a prime primitive root. This can be done either by brute force or as follows. 43 is prime and it must have a primitive root t=1 that's coprime to 43. All numbers of the form 43k+t are also primitive roots of 43. According to Dirichlet's Theorem there must be infinitely many primes among them.
Similar arguments for modulo 47 lead to 46∣n and 47∣n. Therefore, we get n=lcm[42,43,46,47]. Following the last paragraph of Solution 1 gives the answer 125.
~Mryang6859 (Solution)
~MRENTHUSIASM (Reformatting)
Solution 3 (Casework)
We perform casework on a:
a=1.
For all positive integers n, we have σ(an)−1=0.
a is a prime number.
For all prime numbers p, note that
σ(pn)−1=(i=0∑npi)−1=i=1∑npi=p−1pn+1−p=p−1p(pn−1)
by geometric series.
Recall that 2021=43⋅47. Applying the Chinese Remainder Theorem, we get the following system of congruences:
p−1p(pn−1)p−1p(pn−1)≡0(mod43),≡0(mod47).(1)(2)
We perform casework on (1):
1. p−1≡0(mod43).
We need p(pn−1)≡0(mod43).
If p=43, then this congruence is true for all positive integers n.
If p=43, then this congruence becomes pn−1≡0(mod43). By Fermat's Little Theorem, we obtain n≡0(mod42).
2. p−1≡0(mod43).
We need pn−1 to contain more factors of 43 than p−1 does. More generally, for all positive integers k, if p−1≡0(mod43k), then pn−1≡0(mod43k+1).
Let p=43km+1 for some positive integer m such that m≡0(mod43). We substitute this into pn−1≡0(mod43k+1) and apply the Binomial Theorem:
(43km+1)n−1[(0n)(43km)0+(1n)(43km)1+0(mod43k+1)(2n)(43km)2+⋯+(nn)(43km)n]−1[1+43kmn]−143kmn≡0(mod43k+1)≡0(mod43k+1)≡0(mod43k+1)≡0(mod43k+1),
from which n≡0(mod43).
For (1), we find that n≡0(mod42) and n≡0(mod43).
For (2), we find that n≡0(mod46) and n≡0(mod47) by a similar argument.
Together, we conclude that n=lcm(42,43,46,47) is the least such positive integer n for this case.
a is a composite number.
Let a=∏i=1upiei be the prime factorization of a. Note that σ(a) is a multiplicative function:
σ(a)=σ(i=1∏upiei)=i=1∏uσ(piei)=i=1∏u(j=0∑eipij),
as this product of geometric series spans all positive divisors of a.
At n=lcm(42,43,46,47), it follows that
σ(an)−1=(i=1∏uσ(piein))−1≡(i=1∏u1)−1≡0(mod2021)(mod2021).
Finally, the least such positive integer n for all cases is
n=lcm(42,43,46,47)=lcm(2⋅3⋅7,43,2⋅23,47)=2⋅3⋅7⋅23⋅43⋅47,
so the sum of its prime factors is 2+3+7+23+43+47=125.
~MRENTHUSIASM (inspired by Math Jams's 2021 AIME I Discussion)
Solution 4 (Cheap)
Since the problem works for all positive integers a, let's plug in a=2 and see what we get. Since σ(2n)=2n+1−1, we have 2n+1≡2(mod2021). Simplifying using CRT and Fermat's Little Theorem, we get that n≡0(mod42) and n≡0(mod46). Then, we can look at a being a 1(mod43) prime and a 1(mod47) prime, just like in Solution 1, to find that 43 and 47 also divide n. There don't seem to be any other odd "numbers" to check, so we can hopefully assume that the answer is the sum of the prime factors of lcm(42, 43, 46, 47). From here, follow solution 1 to get the final answer 125.
~PureSwag
Solution 5 (Similar to Solution 4 and USEMO 2019 Problem 4)
Warning: This solution doesn't explain why 43∗47∣n.
It says the problem implies that it works for all positive integers a, we basically know that If p≡1(modq), then from "USEMO 2019 Problem 4", if pn+pn−1+⋯+1≡1(modq), then
p−1pen+1−1=pen+pen−1+⋯+1≡1(modq).
From here we can just let σ(2n) or be a power of 2 which we can do
σ(2n)=1+2+22+23+24+⋯+2n=2n+1−1,
which is a geometric series. We can plug in a=2 like in Solution 4 and use CRT. We have the prime factorization 2021=43⋅47. We use CRT to find that
2n2n≡1(mod43),≡1(mod47).
We see that this is just FLT which is ap−1≡1(modp) we see that all multiples of 42 will work for first and 46 for the second. We can figure out that it is just lcm(43−1,47−1)⋅43⋅47 which when we add up we get that it's just the sum of the prime factors of lcm(42,43,46,47) which you can just look at Solution 1 to find out the sum of the prime factors and get the answer 125.
Solution 6 (Easier than most solutions)
The sum of the factors of a number with prime factorization n=p1a1p2a2⋯pkak is given by:
σ(n)=i=1∏k(j=0∑aipij)=i=1∏kpi−1piai+1−1
, or in more simplicity, The sum of the factors of a number with prime factorization (a1e1a2e2⋯akek) is given by:
σ(n)=(1+a1+a12+⋯+a1e1)(1+a2+a22+⋯+a2e2)⋯(1+ak+ak2+⋯+akek)
Then, notice that if a is prime then σ(an)−1≡0(mod2021), then (∑i=0nai)−1≡0(mod2021), or ∑i=1nai≡0(mod2021), which is to say a(a−1an−1)≡0(mod2021), and is thus equivalent to 0(mod43)and0(mod47).
If a≡0(mod43) then note that a−1an−1≡1(mod43), in which an≡a(mod43) and thus an−1≡1(mod43). Then, because 43 is prime, we have that n must be a multiple of 42. In addition, n must be a multiple of 46 through the same logic.
Then, think about when a is composite. Then, it may be written as (∑i=1n)kp1i⋅p2i⋅...⋅pki (note that (∑i=1n)k implies k nested sums) where each pk is a prime. This, when subtracted by 1, must be equivalent to 0(mod2021) and thus each individual sum is the sum of a geometric series with every value being equivalent to some 0(mod2021).
Now, if we take the expanded form we essentially find
σ(n)=(1+a1+a12+⋯+a1e1)(1+a2+a22+⋯+a2e2)⋯(1+ak+ak2+⋯+akek)−1≡0(mod2021)
or
σ(n)=(1+a1+a12+⋯+a1e1)(1+a2+a22+⋯+a2e2)⋯(1+ak+ak2+⋯+akek)≡1(mod2021)
Which then implies at least one of these sums is equivalent to 1(mod43) or/and 1(mod47). Then, WLOG, say that sum is 1+a1+a12+⋯+a1e1 for mod43.
Then, a1−1a1e1+1−1, in which a1e1≡1(mod43). The only way this is possible is if e1=42. This then implies the primilaritveness of e1, as thus σ(an)≡n+1(mod43). Then, n is divisible by 43, and the same logic applies for 47.
Another way to approach that is to realize that once e1=42, the factor of n must be divisible by 43 through the sum of factors formula.
The smallest n is then the lcm(42,43,46,47), and continue as in solution 1.
~Pinotation
Remark (Dirichlet's Theorem)
All solutions require Dirichlet's Theorem, which states that for any coprime positive integers k and r, there are infinitely many primes p congruent to r(modk).