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三只看跌期权价格套利

Prices of three put options

专题
Finance / 金融
难度
L4

题目详情

三只其他条款完全相同、执行价分别为 40、50、70 的看跌期权价格分别为 $10、$20、$30。这里是否存在套利机会?如果存在,如何构造无风险收益?

英文原题

The prices of three put options with strikes 40, 50, and 70, but otherwise identical terms, are $10, $20, and $30 respectively. Is there an arbitrage opportunity present? If yes, how can you make a riskless profit?

解析

解析需会员查看。


英文解析

If an arbitrage exists, it will be due to the fact that the convexity of put option values with respect to the strike price is violated.

In the plane (K,y)(K,y) , the line passing through the points (K=40,P(40)=10)(K = 40,P(40) = 10) and (K=70,P(70)=30)(K = 70,P(70) = 30) is given by

y=70K3010+K403030y = \frac{70 - K}{30}\cdot 10 + \frac{K - 40}{30}\cdot 30

The point on this line corresponding to strike 50 is obtained by substituting K=50K = 50

in (3.57), and has yy coordinate equal to

2310+1330=503.\frac{2}{3} \cdot 10 + \frac{1}{3} \cdot 30 = \frac{50}{3}.

Since P(K)P(K) is a strictly convex function of KK , a noarbitrage value of the put option with strike 50 should be below the line passing through the price points of the options with strikes 40 and 70. However, P(50)=20>503P(50) = 20 > \frac{50}{3} . Thus, the put option with strike 50 is overpriced, and an arbitrage exists.

Using a "buy low, sell high" strategy, we can take advantage of this arbitrage opportunity as follows: buy 2 put options with strike 40, buy 1 put option with strike 70, and sell 3 put options with strike 50. There is a 10positivecashflowwhensettingupthisportfolio,since10 positive cash flow when setting up this portfolio, since

3$202$10$30=$103 \cdot \$ 20 - 2 \cdot \$ 10 - \$ 30 = \$ 10

The value V(T)V(T) of the portfolio at the maturity TT of the options is

V(T)=2max(40S(T),0)+max(70S(T),0)3max(50S(T),0)\begin{array}{c}{V(T) = 2\max (40 - S(T),0)}\\ {+\max (70 - S(T),0)}\\ {-3\max (50 - S(T),0)} \end{array}

Note that V(T)V(T) is nonnegative for any value S(T)S(T) of the underlying asset at TT . If 70S(T)70 \leq S(T) , then all options expire out of the money and

V(T)=0.V(T) = 0.

If 50S(T)<7050 \leq S(T) < 70 , then

V(T)=70S(T)0.V(T) = 70 - S(T) \geq 0.

If 40S(T)<5040 \leq S(T) < 50 , then

V(T)=(70S(T))3(50S(T))=2S(T)800\begin{array}{c}{V(T) = (70 - S(T)) - 3(50 - S(T))}\\ {}\\ {= 2S(T) - 80}\\ {}\\ {\geq 0} \end{array}

If S(T)<40S(T) < 40 , then

V(T)=2S(T)80+2(40S(T))=0.V(T) = 2S(T) - 80 + 2(40 - S(T)) = 0.

In other words, we set up a portfolio with positive cash flow at inception which does not lose money regardless of the value of the underlying asset at time TT . The risk- free profit is equal to the future value at time TT of the 1010 cash flow from setting up the portfolio.